mistac01

He's calling Ukraine, of course there is a lag.

She took him Back?!?!?!?!?!?!😂

Huh??? I though this was obvious......but......the topic of discussion there is the visa that Fernanda's family would be using to temporarily enter the USA to attend her wedding, i.e. a B-2 tourism visa(which is required if your home country is not part of the VWP). You don't use asylum, seasonal work permits, natural disaster suvivorship, student, etc visas for that. But feel free to contact Fernanda and let her know that if only her parents had thought to lodge a false asylum claim, then they could come to the USA temporarily for her wedding and avoid all of that pesky red tape! Why, how could her parents be so dumb, I'm sure there would have been no negative side affects from that plan!

This is exactly why the K-3 is less preferred than the K-1 by potential future spouses.

They could have if they had planned ahead on using a marriage visa(K-3) instead of the fiance visa(K-1). The K-3 must be applied for in the country where the marriage happened, and requires the spouse to wait in their home country until the visa is processed before they can travel to the USA. This would have also DQed them from this show, which is about using the K-1 Visa. Since she is here on a K-1, she has to marry or leave.

You stop, because you are dead wrong. It is very difficult to gain a visa if your home country is not part of the Visa Waiver Program(VWP). And actually you DO need money, the visa itself is not cheap, and having a certain amount sitting in your bank account in your home country is part of the requirements(you need to demonstrate that you have sufficient motivation to return home after your trip). Exactly. You can have deep familial and economic ties to your home country, 50k+ USD sitting in your bank account, a clean criminal record, all of the "proper documentation", and still be denied an entry visa with no cause given.

You're still misunderstanding. Yes landlords can add punitive damages to give themselves a stick to use other than outright eviction as a deterrent, but that still doesn't mean that a lessor, who is also themselves a lessee(Read the Dad), can illegally evict his sub-lessee(read his daughter). So yes the landlord can fine the Dad for violating their private contract in this case if his lease states it. That's just a private contract, breaking it is not a criminal offense, but a civil matter. The daughter still cannot be forcibly removed from the residence without someone using a formal eviction proceeding, even in Texas. Doing that IS an actual criminal act. I don't know how else to explain this, but I think most people understand what I have said.

This part of your statement is totally false. Every state in the union has a set consecutive time range(typically between 10-30 days) that if person stays in your home for, then they can legally claim occupancy rights. At that point you've essentially "sub-let" to them and would have to follow your local eviction laws to legally force them to leave. Failure to follow those procedures would open you to "constructive eviction" lawsuits(and in many jurisdictions treble damages as a result). These laws exist to stop people from throwing significant others they have been living with on the street with zero notice and just saying "oh, but they aren't on the lease officer". I believe in many jurisdictions, paying any rent at all then immediately entitles you to occupancy rights. https://www.lawhelp.org/dc/resource/frequently-asked-questions-evicting-guests-roommates-family-members-and-other-unwanted-occupants-from-your-home Now, It most certainly would violate the lease with the landlord, and the landlord then has the *option* to terminate the lease, and if he/she does so, they must then follow the same local eviction laws to evict you and your unauthorized sub-let. In practice, landlords typically do not terminate the lease over this, since they would not want to kick out a paying tenant, only to then incur vacancy and turnover costs. You can circumvent this by having a signed "guest agreement" that states the time frame a "guest" is staying, what they are paying, how much it costs if they over stay, etc. This is what is in all of that fine print that no one ever reads when they check into a hotel. I'm guessing he didn't have his daughter sign any guest agreements(and even if he did, courts would throw that out in a obvious scenario like this), so what he is doing amounts to an illegal eviction. His daughter could sue for up to treble damages depending on what her local laws say the penalty for this is.

No, why do people make these statements of fact on this forum when they haven't googled even the basics first? If the woman is from a member country of and signatory to the 'The Hague Convention of 23 November 2007 on the International Recovery of Child Support and Other Forms of Family Maintenance', then she can file for child support at her closest American Consulate if she can sufficiently prove likelihood paternity. The US government would then force a DNA test back here stateside and garnish child support. If the man were not within the USA, then his passport would be revoked and a sort of international warrant to "extradite to USA on sight" would be issued. It is difficult to do in practice, but is entirely possible. https://www.hcch.net/en/instruments/conventions/specialised-sections/child-support https://travel.state.gov/content/travel/en/legal/travel-legal-considerations/intl-child-support.html

This is actually an irritating trait of behavior on this forum(not you specifically, it's common here). Here, it's just assumed that only a Neutral American English accent is acceptable, and all other pronunciations are just mocked. It really reeks of ignorance. Just as in English, there are many different accents and accepted pronunciations in Spanish. Pronouncing the 'LL' as a neutral American English accent 'y' sound is the "neutral accent" accepted Mexican Spanish pronunciation(and as such is how you would almost always hear it pronounced in the USA, where Mexican Spanish is the dominant accent). In Colombian Spanish, the "neutral accent" 'LL' is the American English 'j' sound. In argentine spanish, they use the American english 'sh' sound (i.e. Me-dah-sheen). If you want to know more, read up on the International Phonetic Alphabet(here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/International_Phonetic_Alphabet , or here: http://www.ipachart.com/ ). Disclaimer: Native born Missourian here with a 100% neutral American English accent that has extensively traveled the world and knows there is no one "correct" pronunciation for anything and as such does not mock ESL learners trying to pronounce my native tongue, as seems to be the favorite pastime of many posters here who want to feel superior to ESL learners. I'd love to hear the accent free pronunciation in second languages from all of the posters here that do this, something tells me they're primarily monolinguals with little global exposure.

Aw man he's ok, just put him in the sarcophagus!

Crew boat sinks while filming season 5 after "breaking its propeller with a mooring rope". http://www.dailymail.co.uk/tvshowbiz/article-4251152/Below-Deck-s-boat-sinks-Caribbean-filming.html